1. Recruitment Overview & Vacancy Correction
The Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs) have issued the detailed recruitment notification CEN 05/2026 for 590 Paramedical staff positions across various Zonal Railways and Production Units. Online registration started on 15 September 2026 and closes at 23:59 hours on 14 October 2026 through the unified recruitment portal rrbapply.gov.in.
Several aggregator portals have mistakenly reported the vacancy count as 365 posts by confusing the Nursing Superintendent cadre with the total tally. As verified directly from Page 4 (Summary Table) and Annexure-B of the official notification CEN 05/2026, the total aggregate vacancy across all 20 participating RRBs is exactly 590 posts across 9 specialized paramedical cadres.
Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs)
CEN No. 05/2026 (Paramedical)
590 Posts (Level 3 to Level 7)
Single-Stage CBT (100 MCQs)
2. Important Dates & Official Schedule
3. Post-Wise Vacancies, Pay Scale & Medical Standards
Positions notified in CEN 05/2026 span 7th CPC Pay Levels 3 through 7. Medical fitness standards in Indian Railways are strict, particularly regarding visual acuity. The distribution across all RRBs is structured as follows:
4. RRB-Wise & Category-Wise Vacancy Breakdown (Annexure-B)
Candidates can apply to only one RRB. To assist applicants in deciding their preferred board, below is the official distribution of vacancies across all 20 participating Railway Recruitment Boards:
5. In-Hand Monthly Salary Calculation (7th Pay Commission)
Railway employees receive regular central allowances including Dearness Allowance (DA calculated at 50% of Basic Pay), House Rent Allowance (HRA based on city classification X, Y, or Z), and Transport Allowance (TPTA). Paramedical cadres in hospital postings also receive specific allowances. Below is the estimated starting in-hand salary range across pay levels:
*Note: Nursing staff receive additional Nursing Allowance (~₹7,200/month) subject to Railway Board deployment rules. Actual pay varies depending on whether posting is in an X, Y, or Z class city.
6. Strict Application Rules, Live Photo & Annexure-VII Clause
Critical Guidelines from CEN 05/2026:
- Live Webcam Photo Only (No Pre-existing Photo Upload): Candidates are not required to upload a pre-existing photo. A live photograph is captured directly via webcam or mobile front camera during application submission. Wear non-white/dark clothing to contrast against a light background. Do not wear caps, masks, or spectacles with glare.
- Annexure-VII (Gazetted Officer Attestation): Live photos undergo automated system validation. If the face match fails validation, the portal generates Annexure-VII. Candidates must download Annexure-VII, have their recent photograph attested by a Gazetted Officer (signature partly on certificate and partly on photo with official seal), and upload it as valid proof of identity.
- Signature Specifications (Strict Running Handwriting): The scanned signature must be written in running cursive handwriting using black ink on white paper. Signatures written in CAPITAL or BLOCK letters will be rejected immediately. Image file: JPG/JPEG, 30 KB to 49 KB, dimensions 140 × 60 pixels.
- Single RRB Restriction (Para iv): Candidates can choose only ONE participating Railway Recruitment Board. Multiple applications across RRBs or duplicate forms to the same RRB will result in automatic rejection and lifetime debarment.
- Awaiting Final Examination Results (Para 6.0-b): Candidates whose final diploma/degree results have not been declared on or before 14 October 2026 cannot apply.
- Aadhaar Biometric Verification: Biometric authentication will be carried out at CBT entry. The candidate’s name and date of birth must match their 10th/Matriculation certificate identically.
7. Medical Standards & LASIK Surgery Eligibility
Railway medical fitness is stringent. Candidates who fail the prescribed medical fitness will not be offered alternative appointments.
| Standard | Distance Vision Requirement | Near Vision & Color Vision Tests |
|---|---|---|
| B-1 | 6/9, 6/12 with or without glasses (power not to exceed 4D) | Sn: 0.6, 0.6 with/without glasses. Must pass Colour, Binocular, Night & Mesopic vision tests. |
| C-1 | 6/12, 6/18 with or without glasses | Sn: 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading or close work is required. |
| C-2 | 6/12, nil with or without glasses | Sn: 0.6 combined with or without glasses for close reading work. |
8. Computer Based Test (CBT) Scheme & Marks Distribution
Selection is based on a Single-Stage Computer Based Test (CBT) with 100 questions to be answered in 90 minutes (120 minutes for PwBD candidates using scribes). The exam carries a penalty deduction of 1/3rd mark for every incorrect answer.
Minimum Qualifying Thresholds: UR / EWS: 40% | OBC-NCL / SC: 30% | ST: 25%. A 2% mark relaxation is admissible to PwBD candidates if reserved vacancies remain unfilled. Shortlisting for Document Verification is done at 1:1 ratio based on normalized CBT merit.
9. Application Fee & Aadhaar Bank Refund Policy
| Candidate Category | Fee Amount | Refund on Attending CBT |
|---|---|---|
| General, OBC (Creamy Layer), EWS | ₹500 | ₹400 Refunded (less bank charges) |
| SC, ST, Ex-Servicemen, PwBD, Female, Transgender, Minorities, EBC | ₹250 | Full ₹250 Refunded (less bank charges) |
*Note: Refunds are credited exclusively to the bank account seeded with the candidate’s Aadhaar number. Linking is validated via the NPCI portal during application.
10. Prescribed Qualifications for All 9 Posts (Annexure-A)
- Nursing Superintendent (Cat 1): GNM (3-year General Nursing and Midwifery course) from an Indian Nursing Council recognized school/institution OR B.Sc. (Nursing), with active registration as Registered Nurse & Midwife.
- Pharmacist Entry Grade (Cat 5): 10+2 in Science plus Bachelor Degree in Pharmacy (B.Pharm) or Doctor of Pharmacy (Pharm.D), and registered as a Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948.
- Health & Malaria Inspector Gr II (Cat 3): B.Sc. degree with Chemistry as Main or Optional subject, plus 1-year Diploma in Health/Sanitary Inspector OR 1-year National Trade Certificate (NTC) in Health Sanitary Inspector from NCVT.
- Radiographer X-Ray Technician (Cat 6): 10+2 with Physics and Chemistry plus 2-year Diploma in Radiography / X-Ray Technician / Radiodiagnosis Technology. B.Sc. in Radiography is also acceptable.
- Lab Assistant Grade-II (Cat 9): 12th in Science plus Diploma in Medical Laboratory Technology (DMLT) of at least 1-year duration. B.Sc. MLT is also eligible.
- ECG Technician (Cat 7): 10+2 or Graduation in Science plus Certificate/Diploma/Degree in ECG Laboratory Technology or Cardiology Techniques of at least 1 year duration.
- Dialysis Technician (Cat 2): B.Sc. plus Diploma in Haemodialysis OR 2 years in-house clinical experience in haemodialysis from a recognized medical institute.
- Optometrist (Cat 8): B.Sc. in Optometry or 3 to 4-year Diploma in Ophthalmic Technician, registered with the relevant licensing council.
- Audiologist & Speech Therapist (Cat 4): BASLP (Bachelor in Audiology, Speech-Language Pathology) from a recognized university, registered with Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI).
11. Verified Official Links & Application Desk
12. Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
What is Annexure-VII in RRB CEN 05/2026?
Annexure-VII is a verification certificate generated online if the candidate’s live webcam photograph fails automated validation. Candidates must download it, get their photo physically attested by a Gazetted Officer (seal and half-signature on photo and paper), and re-upload it to validate identity.
What is the total number of vacancies in RRB Paramedical 2026?
There are 590 vacancies advertised across 20 RRBs, consisting of 365 Nursing Superintendents, 118 Pharmacists, 43 Health & Malaria Inspectors, 31 Lab Assistants, 25 Radiographers, and other technical posts.
Can an applicant apply to more than one RRB?
No. Candidates can choose only one RRB and submit a single application. Applying to multiple RRBs results in cancellation of all applications and exam debarment.
What are the signature formatting rules for RRB online application?
The signature must be in cursive/running handwriting with black ink on white paper (30 KB to 49 KB). Signatures written in capital or block letters are strictly rejected.
What is the negative marking deduction in CBT?
1/3rd mark is deducted for every incorrect response. The exam has 100 questions (70 technical professional domain + 30 general) for 100 marks with a 90-minute time limit.